Wednesday, September 30, 2009

Philosophical Good Faith (Or, Boo, Hiss, Moriarty!)

As I tend to do, I’d like to make an argument that I am not necessarily ready to stand by; rather, I’ll throw it out there, and see if it sticks. I’m going to argue that “good faith” is necessary to genuine philosophical dialogue; without “good faith”, genuine philosophical dialogue cannot occur, and there is a direct correlation between the degree of good faith in such a discussion and the value of that discussion itself.

First, I’ll help to define some terms. I choose the word “dialogue” rather than lecture to indicate the method of direct communication between multiple parties, with the intent of communication between the two of them. Let’s leave “philosophical” ambiguous, but state that the goal should be that the dialogue be productive for both individuals, without getting too into what is meant by that (as the meaning of “philosophical” is another post in and of itself). Genuine means that the intentions of the individuals participating are explicitly and directly communicated or understood; there is not a hidden meaning or purpose behind the discussion.

What, then, to make of “good faith”? I’ll introduce the concept as follows: “good faith” refers to the state in which an argument is presented. In order for a state to be considered one of “good faith”, it is necessary (although not necessarily sufficient) that the individual in said state maintain the following three properties: absolute earnestness, justified belief, and coherence between one’s argument, one’s method of communication, and one’s intention. Let’s see if I can expand on those a bit, and how examples hold up.

By “absolute earnestness,” I mean that an individual’s argument must be communicated with conviction, and be willing to affirm that conviction’s relation to the argument. If there are contingencies attached to the conviction, they must be communicated, or else “absolute earnestness” shall not be attained, and an individual shall not be acting in a state of good faith. As an example, assume that I am engaged in what I intend to be a genuine philosophical dialogue with Moriarty, and assume that he proposes, “Atoms do not exist”, to be a justified belief (he might offer rational arguments for this position), and his argument might be internally and externally coherent. However, if his argument is made simply to frustrate his fellow dialoguer, rather than promote investigation and/or edification, his argument is not made in good faith; his argument lacks absolute earnestness. If he were truly acting in good faith, he would work to help either himself or his colleague (or both) reach a productive or edifying philosophical end, rather than simply trying to win an argument. Moriarty, unfortunately, tends not to act in absolute earnestness; he brings in unusual and jarring argument for the sake of confusing or perplexing his fellow philosopher, and doesn’t really intend to serve a philosophical cause with his arguments. Boo, hiss, Moriarty!

By “justified belief”, I mean that one must argue from a standpoint of belief, and that belief cannot be purely arbitrary. First, assume I say, “Murder is necessarily good”; if one stated that and did not believe it, they should not assume it as a premise for an argument. However, imagine that one stated, “Suppose that murder were necessarily good”, “What if murder is necessarily good”, or, “Wouldn’t that entail murder being necessarily good?” Such claims are interrogative, not declarative; they are not stating beliefs, but rather using contra-positives to help explore another’s (hopefully justified) belief. Justification refers to a degree of sufficiency with respect to reasons that one has a belief. Just because Moriarty argues that “Corporations are evil, because they want profit” is justified does not mean that said belief is sufficient (boo, hiss, Moriarty!). What determines sufficiency for justification would be a topic of another post; for now, hopefully my point is clear enough. At any rate, assume that I am dialoguing with Moriarty about whether a true practitioner of Nietzsche’s philosophy would necessarily believe in the existence of God. If Moriarty argued that “Nietzsche proved that God is dead, so God necessarily once existed”, his belief (let’s assume that he actually believes it) would not be justified; even a most basic understanding of Nietzsche’s point with that statement would explicitly affirm that Moriarty missed the point. Moriarty would not have been acting in good faith, because he was citing a vital argument (which he believed to be representative of Nietzsche’s philosophical arguments on the subject) that he did not even have a basic understanding of. Thus, his belief was not justified; he was not acting in coherence with philosophical good faith.

Lastly, good faith requires “coherence between one’s argument, one’s method of communication, and one’s intention”. Since there’s a lot of interplay here, I’ll try to be brief. Suppose that one is trying to communicate a philosophical argument, but doing so at gunpoint. There would not be coherence between the individual’s argument (which was philosophical in nature) and one’s method of communication (which is violent, forceful, and antithetical to the consent and understanding of the gunpointee). One would be acting in good faith if they were arguing, “Give me your money”, and had someone at gunpoint; this element of good faith would be satisfied, even though it might be an immoral act. Similarly, if intends to have a philosophically productive/edifying conversation, and yet their argument or their method of communication were quarrelsome and belligerent, they would not be acting in good faith. Moriarty might try those sort of things, but to him we say, boo, hiss.

So, there you have it. I could go on longer, but it’s a long blog post, already. Zach’s argument for what good faith is. I did not have time to actually argue why it’s necessary, but hopefully the necessity should be implicit in the arguments. If not, it’ll make for a good follow-up post…

6 comments:

michael papazian said...

Your understanding of good faith sounds at several points like the requirements that Plato has Socrates impose on his interlocutors. For example, Socrates often insists that his interlocutor state what he actually believes. There's an interesting discussion of the requirements of Platonic dialectic by Pierre Hadot in his book What is Ancient Philosophy?. See especially chapter 5, where there is a discussion of the ethics of true dialogue.

Anonymous said...

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RJM said...

I like this post. Very usefull for conducting good philosophical dialogue; although its more technical than I anticipated, and fear that I may be violating as I write! Nevertheless I'm actin in good faith when I say that I wouldn't be sure if an argument for let's say, the use of phrenology for admission to Berry College, to be good even if they were acting in good faith. Perhaps the addition of Truth, which would make knowledge a requirement for good faith, solve this problem. Basically what I'm saying is that whithout Truth,the scope of good philosophical dialogue exmpands to accomidate serious discussion of genuinly immoral subjects. Do we want this?

rjm said...

I just want to clarify, not only would most people agree that arguing for the use of phrenology is not good, but also fruitless, because there is no truth in the use of phrenology to judge the IQ of human beings. This is what I mean by including 'Truth'

Zach Sherwin said...

Ray,

Glad to hear you liked the post; sorry if it's overly technical.

1. I agree with you that it may not be sufficient. In the post, I argued that "it's necessary for genuine philosophical dialogue; without 'good faith', genuine philosophical dialogue cannot occur, and there is a direct correlation between the degree of good faith in such a discussion and the value of that discussion itself." Good faith may not be sufficient for legitimate philosophical dialogue.

2. On the other hand, I don't know that I like the idea of importing truth into the idea of good faith. Common use implies that it's possible to believe something, in good faith, and yet be mistaken (for example, we can imagine a situation where many believe in good faith that a certain Berry student was not a villain; in fact, this person was, but there's no way that others could know about it beforehand.) Good faith requires a justified belief, but if that belief need be true, then Aristotle did not act in good faith when presenting his account of science. I don't think that's right.

3. I'm also not convinced that truth ought to be a requirement, in addition to good faith, for the use of phrenology in admitting candidates to Berry. Why?
3a. Good faith is sufficient to preclude Berry admission counselors from engaging in phrenology on the job. On the off chance that someone actually approves, one of their superiors would object. If the justified belief in the legitimacy of phrenology carried up through the hierarchy, all it should take is someone to present an argument that is forceful enough to make their belief no longer justified. At that point, they would no longer be acting in good faith,

3b. How do we know that phrenological claims are untrue? Isn't it possible that they are true, and our science is mistaken? Sure, the statistical probability of this is near-negligible, but nevertheless we must take the leap. Good faith is required to make that leap, since we can't know 100% that phrenological claims are untrue.

RJM said...

A friend told me we have the habit in our dialogue of talking past each other. I’ll do my best to take this advice and rephrase my problem with your ‘good faith’ argument. I feel, to a certain degree, using the word ‘good’ to describe the type of faith needed to carry out a philosophical dialogue is ambiguous and possibly begging the question. As mentioned before, it doesn’t seem like there is anything good that can come about arguing for phrenology for admissions to Berry College in good faith; although I think both of us would agree that what is good is for the most part a matter of opinion. I may think Bertrand Russell is good, and in doing so I am also implying that not only is his philosophy correct, but that everyone should agree with me. So held within the usage of ‘good’ is also a matter of correctness and universality. So in our discussion of ‘good faith’ being used to argue for phrenology, it seems to be the case that not only is it incorrect, but also non-universal. In fact, a ‘good faith’ argument for phrenology seems to be misguided, and I’m not sure if we want to say that misguided faith is good. If anything, what you are describing is ‘honest faith’. This would be a more accurate interpretation of the definition you gave, and steer clear of the ambiguity ‘good’ brings.
Onto begging the question, if our original discussion was about the proper way to hold a moral and ethical argument, then why would we use the moral quantifier ‘good’ in describing the type of faith needed to engage in moral and ethical discussion? It would be the same as if I used the term ‘purple sight’ to describe the way the world looks when I put on purple glasses.
So what do you think?